UAMS Medical Laboratory Technician–Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLT-MLS) Practice Exam

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• Which staining method is NOT used for mycobacteria?
• Red-purple or burgundy urine is associated with which pigment?
• Which CSF profile best matches tubercular or fungal meningitis?
• Group A Streptococcus (PYR positive) is best described by which profile?
• Approximately how long does one complete PCR cycle take?
• Enterics: phenylalanine deaminase positive; H2S positive; Indole positive. Which organism is described?
• T cells constitute what percentage of peripheral blood lymphocytes?
• Total cholesterol is calculated as the sum of which components?
• Which group can be pigmented or unpigmented?
• Urine crystals with a sulfur-like odor are diagnostic for which condition?
• What term describes completely lysed red blood cells seen in a diluted hypotonic sample?
• Which mycobacterial species is associated with tap water as a scotochromogen?
• Mycobacterium ulcerans is associated with which clinical finding and incubation temperature?
• Liver tumor marker?
• What size range defines VNTRs?
• What kind of plasma can an AB negative patient be transfused with?
• Which statement defines specificity?
• Media supplemented with blood, vitamins, and yeast extract (e.g., BAP & CHOC) is classified as:
• Which tests are used for initial screening for syphilis and are non-treponemal?
• What two tests could identify penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae?
• Duffy antibodies Fya or Fyb are detected by routine enzyme panels.
• Prolonged storage of urine causes decreased bilirubin due to which process?
• Troponin I is elevated within 3–12 hours of chest pain and returns to normal in how many days?
• Which CSF profile indicates viral meningitis?
• What are the long-term and post-preparation storage conditions for Frozen/Deglycerolized Red Blood Cells?
• Amber or brown-orange urine color is most commonly associated with which pigment?
• In the creatinine clearance calculation, which measurements are required?
• On the lagging strand, which enzyme synthesizes the RNA primer that is extended to form an Okazaki fragment?
• Which medium would you choose to recover a broad range of organisms with no bias?
• Enterics: phenylalanine deaminase positive; H2S negative; citrate negative. Which organism is described?
• Enterics: phenylalanine deaminase positive; H2S positive; Indole negative. Which organism is described?
• Thymus defective describes which condition?
• Which disorder is a B-cell immunodeficiency characterized by deficient antibody production?
• Which marker is most commonly used to identify helper T cells (CD4+)?
• Which type of adaptive immunity is primarily mediated by T lymphocytes and their products?
• Type III hypersensitivity is characterized by what?
• Which disorder is most characteristically indicated by a mouse odor in the urine?
• In hypertonic urine, red blood cells tend to become what, potentially causing false negative results in some tests?
• Natural killer (NK) cells are typically identified by which markers?
• Inability to kill ingested organisms is most characteristic of which condition?
• Which statement about elevated creatinine and glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is most accurate?
• At what temperature do Lewis antibodies react?
• Electrophoresis showing 90% Hgb C with the remaining fractions A2 and F corresponds to which disease?
• Which statement defines a differential medium?
• SCID, Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome (WAS), and Ataxia-Telangiectasia are examples of which category?
• Which marker combination most characteristically identifies B lymphocytes?
• Which color is most closely associated with bilirubin presence in urine?
• GPC alpha hemolysis; BEA negative; SALT negative; P disk positive; PYR negative?
• Which organism is alpha-hemolytic with P disk resistant and salt tolerance positive?
• Cirrhosis in SPE interpretation is associated with which deficiency?
• Which finding is most clearly associated with pyelonephritis?
• Which ANA pattern is associated with anticentromere antibodies?
• Which statement best identifies traumatic tap as the cause of CSF blood contamination?
• Which statement about Enterococcus resistance is true?
• How are platelets and white blood cells stored for transfusion?
• Which organisms are lactose fermenters that form red/pink colonies on lactose-containing media?
• What is a major disadvantage of using SYBR Green in qPCR?
• Which storage condition is correct for Frozen Cryoprecipitated AHF?
• What is the name of the test that uses a known concentration of oxacillin with increased salt concentration, where growth indicates resistance and which cannot be used with CNS?
• Which sequence-specific probes are used in PCR-based detection?
• Leuko-depleted RBC transfusions reduce the risk of febrile reactions due to which factors?
• On XLD agar, which colony color indicates lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria such as E. coli?
• In the LDL calculation, which expression is used?
• +DAT can make the Rh control ___ when doing weak D test
• Which base-pairing is correct for RNA?
• Which instrument converts activity of a specific ion in solution into an electrical signal measured by voltmeter or pH meter?
• GI tumor marker?
• Using a fluorescent stain for mycobacteria, how will acid-fast bacilli appear?
• Which selective medium enhances recovery of Yersinia enterocolitica?
• In the standard serum osmolality calculation, which components are used along with sodium?
• Which disorder is classically associated with thymic aplasia and T-cell deficiency?
• Which description indicates a traumatic tap?
• Protein C deficiency is associated with which clinical outcome?
• Adenine and Guanine belong to which type of bases?
• Which sequences are spliced out of pre-mRNA?
• Which description best matches a traumatic tap in CSF analysis?
• Fresh frozen plasma is used when which coagulation tests are prolonged?
• What are VNTRs?
• DIC lab tests include which of the following?
• During PCR, the denaturation step involves heating to approximately what temperature to separate the DNA strands?
• Nonenterococcal Group D Streptococcus is best described by which profile?
• Which organism is GPC with alpha hemolysis, P disk resistant, and bile esculin negative?
• Which cast is commonly seen with resolving infection or dehydration?
• What morphological changes are observed in donor RBCs and WBCs when stored for too long?
• Which organism is a rapid grower?
• In the SPE interpretation, which result is listed with A1-Antitrypsin Deficiency?
• The cold agglutinins test is primarily used for which conditions?
• On SS agar, E. coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter appear as?
• What is the correct formula for calculating creatinine clearance?
• What is the role of spliceosomes?
• Chronic Granulomatous disease, Myeloperoxidase deficiency, and Leukocyte adhesion molecule deficiency are examples of what kind of immune defect?
• What are the three major steps of a standard PCR cycle?
• The speckled pattern on serum protein electrophoresis corresponds to which condition?
• Which phase includes specimen collection, transport, and accessioning?
• Which immunity is nonspecific and provides immediate protection without memory?
• The White Diamond on an NFPA label identifies which kind of hazard?
• What does CODIS stand for?
• Decreased bilirubin in stored urine is due to what mechanism?
• Broad cast is associated with which condition?
• With a fluorescent stain for mycobacteria, AFB appear what color?
• Which medium is selective and enriched for some Neisseria species?
• Nonenterococcal GP D streptococci gamma-hemolytic with BEA positive, SALT negative, PYR negative.
• What is CODIS in forensic science?
• In HIPAA terminology, what does the acronym PHI represent?
• CD8 marks which T cell subset?
• Which spectroscopy technique is primarily used to quantify trace metals by measuring absorption of light by atoms?
• Tyrosine crystals in urine are most associated with which condition?
• Maltese cross is most associated with nephrotic syndrome.
• Salmonella on HE agar appears as?
• Which test is most commonly used to assess long-term blood glucose regulation?
• Which strand is synthesized continuously in the 5' to 3' direction by DNA polymerase?
• PHI includes information about which of the following aspects?
• Dyes used in qPCR that combines PCR with spectrofluorimetry include which of the following?
• What is the recommended clinical response to a GC isolation from a child?
• Which test is used to predict resistance to oxacillin by examining the zone around a cefoxitin disk after 24 hours of incubation at 35C?
• Which of the following is a pre-analytical consideration in laboratory testing?
• Granulocyte transfusions are used for which condition?
• Which category includes conditions such as X-linked Bruton's agammaglobulinemia and Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVI)?
• Lewis antibodies react at room temperature and sometimes at 37 C; what is this temperature range?
• Which organism is catalase positive, non-motile, and spore forming?
• Which HIPAA rule addresses the security of PHI and requires safeguards for handling PHI?
• Bilirubin crystals are most indicative of which condition?
• Passive immunity is typically characterized by immunity that is
• In performing a weak D test, what effect can a positive DAT have on the Rh control?
• Orange-colored urine is most likely produced by which agent?
• Which statement describes an advantage of using SYBR Green in qPCR?
• Which CSF tube is designated as Extra for repeat testing?
• A positive Clinitest result is most consistent with which condition?
• In RNA-DNA base pairing during transcription, which pairing is correct for RNA?
• What are the recommended incubation conditions for CIN agar when culturing Yersinia enterocolitica?
• Elevated ammonia is most commonly associated with which condition?
• How is sensitivity calculated?
• Which organism matches PAD negative; Voges-Proskauer positive; Motility positive; DNase positive?
• Which cytopenias are often observed in multiple myeloma?
• An enteric organism that is phenylalanine deaminase positive, H2S positive, and indole negative is most likely which species?
• During PCR extension, at what temperature is the DNA synthesis carried out by Taq DNA polymerase?
• Which urinary finding is an early indicator of diabetic kidney involvement?
• Which storage artifact leads to loss of urobilinogen when urine is exposed to light?
• Odor change after prolonged urine storage is due to which of the following?
• Which statement best differentiates active immunity from passive immunity?
• Which of the following tests are non-treponemal screening tests for syphilis?
• Catalase positive; Motility positive; BEA positive. Which organism matches this profile?
• In the NFPA labeling system, which hazard category is used to indicate 'Use no water'?
• Which statement defines sensitivity?
• Which statement describes transcription?
• Which HIPAA rule focuses on identifying and protecting against reasonably anticipated threats to ePHI?
• Which jaundice type is associated with increased direct bilirubin in serum, urine bilirubin increased, and urine urobilinogen decreased?
• On MSA agar, which organism ferments mannitol and shows yellow colonies with yellow zones?
• Which medium is used to culture Bordetella pertussis?
• What is the normal glucose range in whole blood?
• What is the mean?
• Which technique measures energy emitted by excited molecules returning to ground state?
• Leuko-reduced platelets or white blood cell transfusions are used for which purpose?
• Which transfusion scenario must be prepared as intrauterine transfusion?
• Which biomarker is an acute phase reactant cardiovascular risk marker?
• In multiple myeloma, bone marrow biopsy often shows what percentage of plasma cells?
• Under UV light around 300 nm, which compound is used to visualize nucleic acids but is a carcinogen?
• Crystals formed after exposure to radiographic contrast media indicate what type of renal injury?
• What does HIPAA stand for?
• What type of blood should be given if from mom to child?
• Normal CD4:CD8 ratio is approximately which?
• Mycobacteria Bovis causes which disease?
• During replication, which protein stabilizes the unwound DNA?
• Catalase test result for Staphylococcus?
• STR analysis is particularly useful for which application?
• Which marker is most characteristic of hematopoietic stem cells?
• Color darkening of urine after prolonged storage occurs due to which process?
• Which finding in urine is most indicative of nephrotic syndrome?
• Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE) refers to which organism?
• Which Mycobacterium requires X factor for growth and is associated with rare disease in immunocompromised hosts?
• What is the correct storage temperature and maximum shelf life for Whole Blood?
• In transcription, RNA is synthesized in which direction?
• Direct bilirubin is water-soluble and detectable in urine when elevated. What is this form called?
• Hemoglobin C crystals are seen in which disease?
• GPC alpha hemolysis; BEA positive; salt tolerance positive; P disk negative; PYR positive?
• Which HIPAA rule addresses breach notification and enforcement?
• An isolate shows Glucose positive, Maltose positive, Lactose negative, Sucrose negative, Nitrate negative, and DNAse negative. Which organism best fits this profile?
• Under HIPAA, which rule addresses disclosure of PHI and gives individuals the right to examine and obtain copies of their health records?
• Broad Cast is associated with?
• Sickle cells and spherocytes will ____ a sed rate.
• Coagulase-positive Staphylococcus species is which organism?
• Prolonged urine storage can cause decreased cells and casts; which term best describes this change?
• In the context of SPE interpretation, which condition is indicated by a pattern described as inflammatory?
• On EMB agar, Escherichia coli typically appears as:
• Which organism is beta-hemolytic and CAMP positive with resistance to both the A disk and SXT?
• Which group grows rapidly at both 28C and 37C?
• Hashimoto's disease is autoimmune and typically associated with which thyroid condition?
• Pooled Cryoprecipitated AHF storage: temperature and duration?
• Which sequences are retained in mature mRNA and exit the nucleus?
• What is the middle point of a data set called?
• What glucose load is used in the standard OGTT to diagnose diabetes?
• Group A Streptococcus is typically associated with which combination: PYR positive and CAMP/Hippurate positive?
• Mycobacterium avium complex is nonchromogenic and associated with pulmonary disseminates. Which option lists it?
• Red, cloudy urine is most commonly due to the presence of which component?
• On HE agar, which color and lactose fermentation pattern is typical for Proteus species?
• Which condition is indicated by the SPE pattern following Waldenstrom's Macroglobulinemia?
• Mycobacterium avium complex is associated with which disease pattern and pigment class?
• Fatty cast is most strongly linked to which condition?
• GPC alpha hemolysis; BEA =; SALT =; P disk positive; PYR negative?
• Elevated creatinine indicates which type of renal status?
• In a data set, the median is best described as:
• Pappenheimer bodies are associated with which condition?
• Which gel concentration is better for separating large DNA fragments (approximately 2,000 to 50,000 bp)?
• Which biomarker is a marker of congestive heart failure and is also elevated with myocardial infarction and dialysis patients?
• Which CSF profile is most consistent with bacterial meningitis?
• In urinalysis, which type of crystals are associated with gout and may appear blue under polarized light when oriented horizontally?
• Which hazard category is indicated by the Red Diamond in NFPA labeling?
• Which disease completes the sequence after Waldenstrom's Macroglobulinemia?
• Which ANA pattern shows rim or peripheral staining?
• What are the storage conditions for Platelets, Apheresis (single-donor)?
• Which condition is indicated by the SPE pattern described as inflammatory?
• Why do premature infants typically need transfusions?
• IgG antibodies cause which type of hemolysis due to sequestration by the spleen?
• During transcription, which enzyme uses one DNA strand to synthesize a complementary RNA strand?
• Which pathogens are associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?
• Renal tubular epithelial cell casts and waxy/broad casts are most consistent with which renal condition?
• Tyrosine crystals in urine are most associated with which condition?
• Prolonged storage of urine causes decreased urobilinogen due to which process?
• Which CSF finding favors hemorrhage over traumatic tap?
• Which condition is commonly associated with an increased anion gap?
• Rouleaux formation is commonly observed in the blood smear of patients with which condition?
• Which agar would you use to selectively recover Yersinia enterocolitica?
• What does CLIA stand for?
• Which end of a nucleic acid strand has the free phosphate group?
• Which description best indicates a traumatic tap in a urine sample?
• During PCR, the step at which primers anneal to the denatured DNA occurs at what phase?
• What is the primary purpose of CNA and PEA media?
• Elevated uric acid can be observed in which scenario related to nucleic acid metabolism?
• Which organism is catalase negative; H2S negative; beta hemolysis?
• Dohle bodies are composed of what?
• GPC alpha hemolysis; BEA positive; salt tolerance positive; P disk negative; PYR positive?
• What color does the CIN agar pH indicator turn if mannitol is fermented?
• Media that contain antimicrobial substances, dyes, antibiotics & certain chemicals (e.g., PEA & CNA) are described as:
• Which hazard category is indicated by the Blue Diamond in NFPA labeling?
• What is the most commonly used gel system in the clinical laboratory?
• Glucose positive; Maltose positive; Lactose negative; Sucrose negative; Nitrate negative; DNAse negative. Which organism best fits this profile?
• What term describes the slow development of the immune system in infancy?
• Which test differentiates Staphylococcus from Streptococcus in routine identification?
• A fatty cast in urine is most indicative of which condition?
• Urine showing white blood cells, bacteria, and white blood cell casts is most diagnostic of which condition?
• Chronic Granulomatous disease is categorized as which type of immune defect?
• Which markers are typical T cell markers?
• Which method is commonly used to screen drugs on a planar stationary phase?
• Which organism shows resistance to both A disk and SXT and is CAMP positive?
• Indirect bilirubin is fat-soluble, bound to a protein, and not detectable in urine. What is this form called?
• Which organism corresponds to a profile of phenylalanine deaminase negative; Voges-Proskauer positive; motility negative; indole positive?
• An enteric organism that tests negative for phenylalanine deaminase, Voges-Proskauer negative, citrate negative, and shows lactose fermentation with lysine fermentation and motility?
• Which organism is catalase negative, H2S negative, and gamma hemolysis?
• Cystine Crystal is associated with?
• On MacConkey agar, which organisms are colorless due to non-lactose fermentation?
• In Ziehl-Neelsen staining, what color do acid-fast bacilli appear?
• Selective and differential media typically used for nose swabs to detect carriage of resistant Staphylococcus aureus is which?
• What is the light source commonly used in atomic absorption spectroscopy?
• What is the arterial blood gas reference range for Total CO2?
• Which gel type provides higher resolution for small DNA fragments than agarose?
• Which organism is PYR positive?
• Which storage artifact explains the decrease in ketones in stored urine?
• Which ANA pattern shows nucleolar staining?
• VNTRs are inherited from which source?
• Which bilirubin is the product of red blood cell lysis, albumin-bound, indirect, not water soluble, and not excreted?
• Which media are used for Bordetella pertussis culture?
• Which disease is indicated by the SPE pattern that follows a normal result in the sequence?
• Which type of immunity involves lymphocytes and their products to defend against specific invaders?
• Salmonella on XLD agar typically shows which colony appearance?
• Organisms distinguished by metabolic difference (e.g., carbohydrate fermentation & enteric media) is called:
• On MacConkey agar, which organisms are colorless and non-lactose fermenters?
• Prolonged storage of urine causes decreased ketones due to which process?
• The Breach Notification Rule requires notification to individuals and which other party in some cases?
• Mycobacteria abscessus is primarily associated with which infection?
• Coagulase-negative Staphylococcus species is most commonly associated with indwelling medical devices?
• Anti-I antibodies are most commonly associated with infection by which organism?
• During transcription, what is used to assemble the RNA strand?
• Which crystals are associated with gout?
• Which immunodeficiency is characterized by intracellular pathogen susceptibility and includes DiGeorge Syndrome and PNP deficiency?
• In diagnostic test performance, what does TP represent?
• Ovarian tumor marker?
• Which form of immunity is mediated by antibodies?
• Which group includes M. avium complex, M. haemophilum, M. xenopi?
• RBCs and RBC casts in urine most strongly suggest which renal pathology?
• Basophilic stippling is seen in which conditions?
• A decreased serum calcium level is most consistent with which condition?
• Swimming pool granuloma is caused by which organism?
• On MSA agar, which description matches coagulase-negative Staphylococci (CNS)?
• An infection most commonly associated with anti-I antibodies is which organism?
• Which group includes organisms that may be pigmented or unpigmented?
• Irradiation of blood products is used to prevent what complication?
• What is the standard correction method for lipemic interference in a CBC?
• In suspected multiple myeloma, which laboratory finding is most characteristic?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a cause of Heinz bodies?
• Bilirubin crystals in urine indicate which condition?
• Antibodies are produced by which immune cells?
• What is the correct storage condition for Leukocyte-Reduced Red Blood Cells?
• Which pigment group is defined by lack of pigment production regardless of light exposure?
• In hemoglobin electrophoresis, which pattern is characteristic of Hgb C disease?
• Prolonged storage of urine with an increased pH is most commonly caused by what process?
• Which of the following is a treponemal confirmatory test for syphilis?
• Which is the final step in standard deviation calculation?
• Which stain is a less toxic alternative to Ethidium Bromide for gel visualization?
• Which dye binds to the minor groove of double-stranded DNA and fluoresces under appropriate illumination?
• Which organism is catalase negative; H2S negative; gamma hemolysis?
• Which jaundice type is indicated by increased indirect bilirubin with normal direct bilirubin, negative urine bilirubin, and positive urine urobilinogen?
• Short Tandem Repeats (STR) are typically how long in nucleotides?
• Waxy cast is associated with?
• What is the normal glucose range in CSF?
• Which technique measures absorption of light energy by atoms and is used to quantify trace metals and toxins?
• Which medium would you use to selectively isolate Neisseria species, inhibiting some normal flora?
• Which Kidd antigen is most commonly associated with delayed transfusion reactions?
• Which cardiac biomarker remains elevated the longest after chest pain?
• Candida infections are associated with which deficiency?
• At 22 C, which Mycobacterium is photochromogenic?
• Pappenheimer bodies (siderocytes) are made up of which structures?
• Which statement about Cabot rings is true?
• Group B streptococcus can be identified by which profile?
• Which pigment group is defined by pigment production in the dark?
• Which formula correctly calculates serum osmolality?
• Which organism is Moraxella catarrhalis, characterized by nitrate positive and DNAse positive, with no fermentation of glucose, maltose, lactose, or sucrose?
• Gamma-hemolysis; CAMP negative; viridans group.
• Which statement best contrasts Enriched solid media with Enrichment Broth?
• Which organism is catalase negative and produces hydrogen sulfide?
• Which bilirubin form is formed in the liver from unconjugated bilirubin and is water soluble, excretable, and converts to urobilinogen?
• Streptococci not Group A or B is best described by which profile?
• The first line of defense in the immune system is which type of immunity?
• Heinz bodies are seen in which condition?
• WBC casts are most closely associated with which condition?
• Candida infections are most associated with which deficiency?
• S. aureus on MSA agar produces which colony appearance?
• Purine Nucleoside Phosphorylase (PNP) deficiency is categorized under which general immunodeficiency group?
• Prolonged storage of urine tends to cause the pH to become which?
• Which condition is a representative B-cell humoral immunodeficiency with variable severity due to antibody production deficit?
• Which jaundice shows decreased urine urobilinogen despite elevated direct bilirubin in serum?
• Which codon serves as the start codon?
• Which species is commonly a nonpathogenic environmental contaminant and scotochromogenic?
• What is the proper storage condition for Washed Red Cells?
• GPC; gamma hemolysis; CAMP negative; Hippurate negative; bile esculin positive; salt tolerance negative. Which organism is most likely?
• What is the formula for calculating VLDL from triglycerides?
• Which organism corresponds to a profile of phenylalanine deaminase negative; Voges-Proskauer negative; citrate negative; lactose/ lysine/ motility negative?
• Which set of crystals is considered normal alkaline crystals in urine?
• Nonpathogenic scotochromogen commonly found as a lab contaminant in water is which?
• Which organism ferments glucose, maltose, and lactose but does not ferment sucrose?
• Which immunodeficiency is defined by a protein defect that affects cytoskeletal function, causing eczema, immunodeficiency, and thrombocytopenia?
• Which beta-hemolytic cocci group includes GPS C, F & G?
• Decreased glucose in stored urine is primarily due to what process?
• Which metabolic disorder is indicated by a maple syrup odor in the urine?
• In gel electrophoresis, the smallest DNA fragments move the ______.
• Which blood product is primarily used to treat coagulation disorders and must be type compatible?
• Which cast is associated with chronic renal failure and urinestasis?
• Prolonged storage of urine affects pH due to which process?
• What is the reference range for arterial blood gas pH?
• Basophilic stippling is made up of which material?
• In the Yellow Diamond, which numeric rating corresponds to a violent chemical change?
• Catalase positive; Motility positive; BEA negative. Which organism best fits this profile?
• Gamma-hemolysis; CAMP positive for S agalactiae.
• Which staining method is the hot acid-fast technique used to identify mycobacteria, resulting in acid-fast bacilli appearing red while other organisms appear blue?
• X factor positive; V factor positive; Beta hemolysis negative. Which organism is most consistent with this profile?
• What is translation?
• Which gamma-hemolytic GPC with BEA+, SALT+, PYR+?
• What colony morphology is characteristic for Bordetella pertussis on Bordet-Gengou agar?
• During DNA replication, which enzyme unwinds the double helix?
• Which organism is associated with alpha-hemolysis among Gram-positive cocci?
• Which tumor marker is most specific for ovarian cancer?
• Leuko-depleted RBC transfusions are used to prevent which risk?
• How long are sexual partners of IV drug users deferred from donating?
• Which finding best indicates hemorrhage in a urine sample?
• In hepatitis B serology, Anti-HBs indicates:
• Alpha-hemolytic streptococci include which groups?
• Yersinia enterocolitica on CIN agar shows which colony appearance?
• Which organism is beta-hemolytic and catalase negative?
• During prolonged urine storage, the increase in bacteria occurs primarily through which process?
• Which urinary finding is most characteristic of nephrotic syndrome?
• Which artifact indicates the presence of white blood cells in hypotonic urine and is seen as small, refractile cells?
• Which base-pairing is correct for DNA?
• In diagnostic test performance, what does FN represent?
• Which pigment group includes M. kansasii and M. marinum?
• Cabot rings are seen in which conditions?
• Which CSF profile is most compatible with tubercular or fungal meningitis?
• Which finding is most characteristic of nephrotic syndrome?
• Which immunodeficiency is commonly associated with anaphylaxis to blood transfusions?
• Which term describes the probability that a patient without disease will test negative?
• Lymphadenitis described as scotochromogenic is caused by which?
• Which product is used to provide concentrated Factor VIII and IX and is processed to be virus inactivated and lyophilized?
• Heinz bodies are composed of what?
• Leucine crystals are associated with which condition?
• Which organism is catalase positive and spore forming?
• What is described as a treatment option for aminoglycoside-resistant Enterococcus?
• Which ANA pattern shows diffuse nuclear staining (homogeneous pattern)?
• In the Red Diamond, what does rating 1 correspond to?
• Gamma-hemolysis is described as which of the following?
• CD45 antigen is most prominently expressed on which cells?
• A patient presents with immunodeficiency, cerebellar ataxia, oculocutaneous telangiectasias, and a defect in Ig and TCR gene rearrangement. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Radiographic dye crystals can cause damage to which renal structure?
• Cystine Crystal is associated with?
• On EMB agar, Klebsiella pneumoniae typically appears as:
• RBC casts in urine are most characteristic of which condition?
• Granular cast is associated with?
• Vaccines against HBV, measles, polio illustrate which type of immunity?
• Calcium oxalate oval crystals are most often associated with which poisoning?
• CNS (coagulase-negative Staphylococci) on MSA agar typically appear as which pattern?
• What is the reference range for arterial blood gas pCO2?
• The presence of white blood cells and bacteria in urine is most suggestive of which condition?
• Red, clear urine can be due to which of the following substances?
• Bilirubin crystals in urine are most indicative of what condition?
• When phenotyping, use a positive control that is _______ positive.
• What does ePHI stand for?
• What is fetal fibronectin used for?
• Which term describes repetitive DNA fragments that contribute to individual DNA profiles in forensic genetics?
• Which CSF tube is designated for Microbiology analysis?
• Armadillo reservoirs are linked to which organism?
• What is the normal glucose range in serum or plasma?
• Which arterial blood gas value falls within the normal reference range?
• Salmonella & Proteus on SS agar appear as?
• Random or casual plasma glucose criterion for diabetes?
• Which statement describes the unit used for the serum osmolality reference range?
• Which CSF tube is designated for Hematology analysis?
• Triad of immunodeficiency, eczema and thrombocytopenia; a protein defect points to which syndrome?
• MRSA resistance is mediated by which penicillin-binding protein variant produced by mecA?
• Prolonged storage of urine causes decreased glucose due to which process?
• Anticoagulant dosing in polycythemia is adjusted based on which laboratory assays?
• Which laboratory test is used to monitor Warfarin therapy and is used to calculate INR?
• RBCs and RBC casts in urine are most strongly associated with which condition?
• Which organism corresponds to a profile of phenylalanine deaminase negative; Voges-Proskauer negative; citrate negative; lactose/ lysine/ motility positive?
• Which tumor marker is used for prostate cancer?
• Prolonged urine storage that leads to turbidity is most associated with which changes?
• WBC casts are associated with which of the following conditions?
• Toxic purine produces decrease T cells describes which deficiency?
• What is produced by DNA replication?
• PHI stands for which term?
• Hyperthyroidism is most commonly associated with which autoimmune disorder?
• Which expression represents the anion gap calculation?
• Adaptive/ Acquired immunity is characterized by being:
• Howell-Jolly bodies are seen in which condition?
• In typical PCR, how many cycles are used to amplify the target DNA?
• Which finding is most characteristic of nephrotic syndrome?
• May Hegglin anomaly is associated with which inclusions?
• A normal SPE result is associated with which disease in the interpretation sequence?
• Fasting plasma glucose criterion for diabetes?
• Mycobacteria fortuitum and chelonae are commonly associated with which infection?
• Elevation of GGT, AST, and ALT is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Which CSF pattern is most consistent with hemorrhage rather than traumatic tap?
• Which species is a pulmonary photochromogen?
• Packed RBC transfusions are used to treat which condition?
• Which media are differential and selective for isolation of Salmonella and Shigella?
• What is the effect of light exposure on bilirubin in stored urine?
• What can make an auto control positive in blood bank testing?
• How many hydrogen bonds form between A and T in DNA?
• CK-MB is elevated within 3–12 hours of chest pain and returns to normal in 48–72 hours. Which biomarker is described?
• CLIA is used for?
• What is the first step in calculating standard deviation?
• What is the arterial blood gas reference range for bicarbonate (HCO3)?
• Which organism is beta-hemolytic group A streptococcus and typically susceptible to the bacitracin disk and PYR positive?
• Active immunity lasting long due to memory responses after vaccination or infection is characterized by what?
• Cholesterol crystals are most associated with which condition?
• Pappenheimer bodies are best described as inclusions comprised of which structures?
• Which bilirubin form is water soluble and excreted in bile and urine?
• The Maltese cross is most commonly linked to which condition?
• Which crystals are typical for normal alkaline urine?
• Media that enhances growth of certain organisms while inhibiting others (e.g., GN, Selenite, LIM & Trans-Vag broth) is called:
• Staining for mycobacteria uses which methods?
• What happens to the RNA transcript after transcription finishes?
• Active immunity refers to immunity produced by what process?
• When is FFP used?
• Thawed Cryoprecipitated AHF storage varies by use: which statement is correct?
• Cytosine and Thymine (DNA); Uracil (RNA) belong to which type?
• Deficiency in Bruton tyrosine kinase causes which condition?
• Decreased ketones in stored urine is most commonly due to which phenomenon?
• Which storage artifact explains the decrease in glucose in stored urine?
• Which codon is a stop codon?
• Cholesterol crystals in urine are commonly associated with which condition?
• Prolonged urine storage with bacteria leads to which result?
• Which storage artifact leads to bilirubin loss when urine is exposed to light?
• Tyrosine crystal indicates?
• The prothrombin time test monitors anticoagulation therapy with which drug?
• In the Blue Diamond, what does level 2 signify?
• Which organism has catalase positive, non-motile with no spores produced?
• The beta-hemolytic cocci groups C, F, and G refer to GPS C, F & G.
• Dohle bodies are seen in which condition?
• Which enzyme catalyzes DNA synthesis during the PCR extension phase?
• Which finding supports a bacterial meningitis diagnosis?
• What is the key difference between SMAC and MAC media?
• Which medium is NOT used for Bordetella pertussis culture?
• Which specimen interference issues can occur in the pre-analytical phase?
• Enterics: phenylalanine deaminase negative; Voges-Proskauer positive; Motility positive; DNase positive. Which organism matches these traits?
• Cystine crystals in urine are most closely linked to which condition?
• In transfusion practice, which type of transfusion must be fresh, CMV negative, radiated and collected with CPDA?
• What are the two main types of adaptive immunity?
• Which type of crystals is associated with pseudogout?
• What compatibility checks must be performed to issue red cell products?
• Anion gap is increased in which of the following conditions?
• Enterococcus faecalis and Enterococcus faecium can acquire resistance to multiple antibiotics.
• On SS agar, which organisms are H2S positive and colorless with black centers?
• In Type II hypersensitivity, which immunoglobulins are typically involved?
• VLDL calculation becomes invalid when triglycerides exceed which value?
• In the creatinine clearance formula, what does the constant 1440 represent?
• The White Diamond communicates which type of hazard on NFPA labels?
• Where does translation occur?
• Leucine crystals are associated with which condition?
• Anti-HBc IgM indicates which stage of infection?
• Tellurite (Tinsdale), Loeffler & Pai agar are used for isolation of which organism?
• What are the storage conditions for Granulocytes, Apheresis?
• After thawing fresh frozen plasma (FFP), what is the recommended storage temperature and maximum storage duration?
• E. coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter on HE agar appear as?
• A granular cast typically indicates which clinical scenario?
• Prolonged storage of urine causes decreased cells and casts due to which process?
• Shigella on SS agar appears as?
• Basophilic stippling is clinically associated with which condition?
• Milky urine is characteristic of which condition?
• GPC; catalase positive; latex agglutination positive; Novobiocin resistant (urine). Which organism is most likely?
• Which organism causes leprosy and cannot be cultured on artificial media?
• Which entities are responsible for protecting any ePHI they create, receive, maintain, or transmit?
• X factor negative; V factor positive; Beta hemolysis positive. Which organism is most consistent with this profile?
• Which cardiac biomarker rises within 1–4 hours and returns to normal within 24 hours?
• A cold agglutinin will not affect which parameter on an automated cell counter?
• Which hypersensitivity involves T cells rather than antibodies and is often delayed?
• Newborn protection from placenta and breast milk is an example of which type of immunity?
• Which description indicates hemorrhage?
• Which organism corresponds to a profile of phenylalanine deaminase negative; Voges-Proskauer negative; citrate positive; lysine negative?
• Prolonged storage of urine can alter odor due to which cause?
• Which type of immunity is specific and induced by prior exposure?
• Calcium oxalate crystals in urine, especially oval crystals, are associated with which condition?
• Mixing patient plasma with normal plasma results in correction of a prolonged PTT. This finding is most consistent with which of the following?
• Troponin T is elevated within 3–12 hours of chest pain and returns to normal in how many days?
• Which pigment group is characterized by pigment production upon light exposure?
• Enterics: phenylalanine deaminase positive; H2S negative; citrate positive. Which organism is described?
• Which bilirubin is produced from unconjugated bilirubin in the liver?
• The light source for atomic absorption spectroscopy is which of the following?
• Passive immunity is conferred by
• In the LDL calculation formula LDL = Total chol - (HDL + Triglyceride/5), which component is divided by 5?
• Which method is used for confirmatory drug testing?
• Which Mycobacterium is a scotochromogen that causes lymphadenitis?
• What is replication?
• Which organism is GPC, alpha hemolysis, P disk resistant, and bile esculin negative?
• Red-purple urine is associated with which pigment?
• STR analysis can be completed within which time frame?
• Why is cryoprecipitate normally used?
• Which crystals are typical of normal acidic urine?
• Hypersegmented neutrophils are a hallmark of which anemia?
• CD4 is used to identify which T cell subset?
• Lipemia in a CBC can cause which of the following, and how is it corrected?
• Catalase test result for Streptococcus?
• Glucose positive; Maltose negative; Lactose negative; Sucrose negative; Nitrate negative; DNAse negative. Which organism matches this profile?
• Which crystals are associated with acidic urine and include uric acid and calcium oxalate?
• Renal tubular casts are most closely associated with which condition?
• 2 hour plasma glucose criterion after an OGTT using a 75 g glucose load?
• Which of the following is NOT a normal glucose value in serum/plasma?
• Which tests are considered treponemal and typically used for confirmatory testing of syphilis?
• Which are the three major rules of HIPAA?
• Natural killer (NK) cells represent approximately what percentage of lymphocytes?
• In NFPA labeling, the Yellow Diamond communicates which type of hazard?
• Which of the following diseases is associated with the speckled SPE pattern?
• Which organism shows lactose fermentation and lysine fermentation with motility, but is negative for Voges-Proskauer and citrate?
• Which enzyme seals the nick between Okazaki fragments?
• Renal tubular cast is most associated with which condition?
• Tyrosine crystals in urine indicate problems with which system?
• Which pattern corresponds to centromere antibodies in ANA testing?
• A Gram-positive cocci is gamma-hemolytic, CAMP positive, Hippurate positive, bile esculin positive, and salt-tolerant. Which organism is most likely?
• Frozen Cryoprecipitated AHF should be stored at which temperature and duration?
• Which organism is PAD positive; H2S negative; citrate negative?
• Factor XII deficiency leads to which bleeding tendency?
• What is the post-preparation storage requirement for Frozen/Deglycerolized Red Blood Cells kept at 1-6 C?
• In what direction is the nucleotide sequence written and read?
• DIC laboratory findings most characteristic include which of the following?
• Frozen, deglycerolized RBC transfusions are used for what purposes?
• X factor positive; V factor positive; Beta hemolysis negative. Which organism is most consistent with this profile?
• Which entities are required to implement safeguards to protect PHI and ePHI?
• Which gels are better for separating small DNA fragments (50-500 bp)?
• Which selective agar is used for Burkholderia cepacia infection?
• Which organism is commonly considered an environmental, scotochromogenic, and nonpathogenic species?
• What are the storage conditions for Random Platelets?
• What type of hemolysis do Lewis antibodies cause?
• Howell-Jolly bodies are composed of which material?
• Enterococcus low-level resistance is seen with which antibiotic class?
• Which organism corresponds to a profile of phenylalanine deaminase negative; Voges-Proskauer negative; citrate positive; lysine positive?
• Anti-HBc IgG generally indicates which stage of hepatitis B infection?
• Which dye is mutagenic and commonly used to visualize DNA on gels under UV transilluminators?
• An elevated urinary micro-albumin level is an early indicator of nephropathy in which condition?
• Which RBC-related product has the longest possible storage under proper conditions among those listed?
• Elevated uric acid is associated with which conditions?
• Cryoprecipitate transfusions are used to supply concentrates of which factors?
• Which characteristic is most associated with Klebsiella pneumoniae colonies on EMB agar?
• Which organism is CAMP positive and associated with neonatal sepsis?
• Proteus species on Hektoen Enteric (HE) agar typically produce which colony color and sugar utilization pattern?
• Tamm-Horsfall protein is primarily produced in which part of the nephron?
• Renal tubular casts are associated with which condition?
• Enterococci are PYR positive with a profile of GPC, alpha hemolysis, P disk resistant, and salt tolerance negative. Which organism fits this description?
• Isolation of Campylobacter species uses which selective media?
• During prolonged urine storage, which artifact most likely causes loss of microscopic sediment elements?
• Which statement best differentiates Hemophilia A from von Willebrand disease?
• Which medium is highly selective for the isolation of Salmonella?
• Washed RBC transfusions are used for patients with IgA deficiency who have what risk?
• Elevated CK, LD, and AST are most consistent with which type of injury?
• What are the storage conditions for FFP, frozen?
• X factor positive; V factor negative; Beta hemolysis negative. Which organism is most consistent with this profile?
• What is the arterial blood gas reference range for PO2?
• Hemoglobin C crystals are composed of what?
• Humoral immunity is described as being mediated by
• At 37 C, M. Szulgai is classified as which pigment type?
• If urine color darkens after prolonged storage, what is the primary biochemical explanation?
• Which option correctly states the frozen storage condition for FFP?
• Fresh frozen plasma transfusions are used to treat which disorders?
• Which organism is beta-hemolytic and PYR positive with resistance to the SXT disk?
• Leukocyte-reduced transfusions are used to prevent which two issues?
• Tyrosine crystal is associated with?
• Which method is used for screening drug presence on a sample?
• Which crystals are considered normal alkaline crystals in urine?
• Which jaundice type shows increased direct and indirect bilirubin with urine bilirubin positive and urine urobilinogen normal or increased?
• What are the storage conditions for Irradiated Blood to prevent GVHD?
• Type IV hypersensitivity is primarily mediated by which cells?
• On SMAC agar, how do E. coli O157:H7 colonies appear compared to other organisms?
• Pooled Cryoprecipitated AHF is stored at what temperature and time?
• GPC; catalase positive; latex agglutination negative; Novobiocin susceptible (urine). Which organism is most likely?
• Proteus species on XLD agar typically appear as which color range and may include which feature?
• What is the correct storage temperature and shelf life for Red Blood Cells (Packed RBCs) using CPDA and ADSOL additive solutions?
• Which antibody is most associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?
• Where does transcription occur?
• Which organism is Gram-positive cocci, catalase positive, latex agglutination positive, and novobiocin resistant (urine isolate)?
• Which hypersensitivity reaction is immediate or anaphylactic and occurs upon contact with an allergen?
• Which measure is defined as the most frequently occurring value?
• Which phase includes clerical errors, reporting and interpreting results, follow-up, storage, and retest?
• An organism tests Glucose positive, Maltose negative, Lactose negative, Sucrose negative, Nitrate negative, DNAse negative. Which organism matches this profile?
• Which organism is GPC with alpha hemolysis and P disk susceptibility?
• Which end of a nucleic acid strand has the free hydroxy group?
• What happens to the DNA double helix during transcription?
• Which value corresponds to the serum osmolality reference range?
• Which statement best describes humoral immunity?
• Which metabolic disorder is indicated by a maple syrup odor in the urine and leucine crystals?
• Leucine crystal is associated with?
• Which statement correctly contrasts screening and confirmatory drug testing?
• Cabot rings are made up of which substance?
• X factor positive; V factor negative; Beta hemolysis negative. Which organism is most consistent with this profile?
• A B cell that cannot convert to a plasma cell describes which immunodeficiency?
• Which crystals are associated with pseudogout?
• Which RBC product specifically uses ADSOL with a 42-day shelf-life?
• Hypersegmented neutrophils, pancytopenia, and macrocytosis are characteristic of which anemia?
• Jaundice is typically clinically apparent at what plasma bilirubin level?
• RhIG at 28 weeks can cause a mom to have a low titer anti-D.
• Which organism corresponds to a profile of phenylalanine deaminase negative; Voges-Proskauer positive; motility negative; indole negative?
• A defect in adhesion receptors is characteristic of which deficiency?
• Cystine crystals in urine are associated with which condition?
• On HE agar, which organism shows blue-green colonies with black centers?
• A waxy cast is most often seen in which condition?
• Shigella on HE agar appears as?
• Under the Security Rule, breach notifications to individuals must be sent within how many days of discovery?
• Streptococci not Group A or B with gamma hemolysis and CAMP/Hippurate positive corresponds to which group?
• Inability to kill ingested organisms is most characteristic of which disease?
• Cloudy urine is most often due to the presence of which components?
• What is the primary purpose of CODIS in forensic science?
• How many hydrogen bonds form between G and C in DNA?
• Which organism matches the following profile: phenylalanine deaminase negative; Voges-Proskauer positive; motility positive; DNAse negative?
• Which marker is an acute-phase reactant used as a cardiovascular risk marker?
• Proteus on XLD agar tends to appear as which combination?
• On MacConkey agar, which pattern is typical for E. coli, Klebsiella, and Enterobacter?
• Which cold acid-fast staining method is used to stain mycobacteria with AFB appearing red against a blue background?
• Washed RBC transfusions are used for patients with IgA deficiency who have what risk?
• Which incubation conditions are used for the Cefoxitin Screen Disk to predict oxacillin resistance?
• Which organism is gamma-hemolytic and catalase negative?
• Black urine color is due to which pigment?
• Non-tuberculous mycobacteria are categorized into which pigment-based groups?
• Coefficient of variation is calculated as
• Rouleaux and Cold auto are factors that can cause a positive auto control. Which of the following best expresses this?
• Beta-hemolytic streptococci include which species?
• Which disease is indicated by the SPE pattern following a diagnosis of Multiple Myeloma in the sequence?
• The speckled SPE pattern is associated with which condition?
• The fetal fibronectin test is performed primarily to rule out which condition?
• Cold auto will react with which AHG reagents?
• In hepatitis B serology, the presence of Anti-HBe most commonly indicates:
• Whole blood transfusions are primarily used to replace what?
• SMAC agar is primarily used to detect which organism?
• On XLD agar, E. coli, Klebsiella, and Enterobacter form which type of colonies?
• When thawed Cryoprecipitated AHF is used for Factor VIII, how should it be stored?
• X factor positive; V factor positive; Beta hemolysis positive. Which organism is most consistent with this profile?
• Which organism is associated with Ziehl-Neelson & Kinyoun staining?
• What morphological changes are observed in donor RBCs and WBCs when stored for too long?
• Prolonged storage of a urine sample often results in turbidity due to which combination?
• The square root of the variance is known as
• RBC casts are most closely associated with which renal condition?
• CD45 marker defines which cell type?
• Which measure is the most frequently occurring value?
• What is the reference range for serum osmolality?
• Mycobacteria Bovis causes which disease?
• Uric acid crystals and calcium oxalate crystals in urine are typically classified as which type of crystals?
• Burkholderia cepacia colonies on BCSA & OFPBL agar appear as which color?
• Which pathogens are described as shiga-like diarrheaogenic pathogens?
• Media that supports growth of most non-fastidious organisms (e.g., trypticase soy broth) is called:
• Gamma-hemolytic streptococci include which genus?
• RTE casts and waxy/broad casts are most indicative of which condition?
• Cryoprecipitate is used to replace which component?
• Which CSF tube is designated for Chemistry/Immunology analysis?
• A Gram-positive cocci is gamma-hemolytic with CAMP negative, Hippurate negative, and bile esculin negative. Which organism is most likely?
• Which of the following is a B cell marker?
• Which statement best describes SMAC vs E. coli O157:H7 on SMAC?
• Which enteric organism is phenylalanine deaminase negative; Voges-Proskauer negative; citrate negative; lactose negative; lysine negative; motility negative?
• Which organism belongs to the viridans group and commonly exhibits gamma or alpha hemolysis and is not PYR positive?
• Which storage condition matches Washed Red Cells?
• Which beta-hemolytic streptococcal species are GAS and GBS?
• Elevated BUN is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Shigella on XLD agar typically forms which appearance?
• X factor positive; V factor positive; Beta hemolysis negative. Which organism is most consistent with this profile?
• Which organism is Gram-positive cocci, gamma-hemolytic, CAMP positive, Hippurate positive, bile esculin positive, and salt-tolerant?
• Cholesterol crystals in urine are most closely associated with which of the following conditions?
• X factor negative; V factor positive; Beta hemolysis positive. Which organism best fits this profile?
• RBC casts are associated with which of the following conditions?
• HbA1c value that indicates diabetes is…
• Do not contain antimicrobial substances & allow growth of many organisms (e.g., BAP & CHOC) are described as:
• Which marker is most commonly used to identify hematopoietic stem cells in mobilized peripheral blood?
• X factor positive; V factor positive; Beta hemolysis negative. Which organism matches this profile?
• How should intrauterine transfusions be handled?
• How is specificity calculated?
• Which statement best describes when Howell-Jolly bodies are observed on a blood smear?
• GPC alpha hemolysis; BEA positive; SALT =; P disk =; PYR =?
• Following a normal SPE result, which disease is indicated in the sequence?
• Room temp crossmatch detects _____ errors.
• Which pattern is typical of viral meningitis?
• Decreased urobilinogen in stored urine is caused by which process?
• Orange urine color is most often caused by which of the following?
• Enzyme panels will react with Duffy antibodies (Fya or Fyb).
• Pappenheimer bodies are seen in which condition?
• Secondary Defects in the immune system can arise from which of the following factors?
• Group B Streptococcus is best described by which profile?
• Which urine sediment type is primarily composed of Tamm-Horsfall protein and forms in the distal tubules?
• Which dye is considered non sequence-specific and commonly used to stain double-stranded DNA?
• In hereditary spherocytosis, osmotic fragility is increased and red blood cells are described as which of the following?